Question (subsidiaire ?)

par VeM, dimanche 01 février 2015, 16:51 (il y a 3371 jours) @ cat

Il s'agit peut-être moins de sensibilité que de sujets abordés, certains étant considérés comme plus spécifiquement féminins - les enfants, le quotidien, la vie matérielle ...
ou de point de vue, de regard que l'on porte sur le monde et qui peut changer selon qu'il vient d'un sujet masculin, ou d'un sujet féminin
mais je me pose aussi la question, après tout, est-ce que l'auteur n'est pas "neutre" de toutes façons, ou bien alternativement l'un et l'autre

pourtant il y a bien une écriture spécifiquement "féminine", DURAS, DICKINSON, les grandes mystiques, ont à mon avis cette écriture là, qui provient, et tente de revenir vers un absolu féminin qui serait le lieu de l'"absence de langage",
parce que finalement le langage,
la prétendue "langue maternelle", c'est une affaire d'hommes

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