Question (subsidiaire ?)

par zeio , dimanche 01 février 2015, 23:12 (il y a 3585 jours) @ dh

Pourquoi justement, le plaisir se ferait donc plus rare dans les livres écrits par des femmes ?
Je ne donne pas de leçon car c'est mon cas aussi : 90% de ma biblio est constituée d'écrits d'hommes. Mais ça me fout la honte et m'interroge. Est-ce une question de sensibilité, de discrimination traditionnelle que je perpétue (malgré moi, sans y faire trop gaffe), ou plus prosaïquement, parce que les femmes écrivent moins bien.

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